My textbook claims to prove the statement that for $2$ well-ordered sets, $X$ and $Y$, either $X$ and $Y$ are isomorphic or one of the sets is isomorphic to an initial segment of the other set (i.e. an upper bounded subset of the other set). The proof starts off:
"Let $X$ be well-ordered, and let $f:X \Rightarrow X$ be a monotonic map, i.e., $$Z_1<Z_2 \Rightarrow f(Z_1)<f(Z_2).$$ Then for all $Z \in X$ we have $f(Z)\geq Z$..."
1) Isn't this the definition of strictly increasing, not monotonic?
2) Take $X = [0,5]$ and $f(x) = 0.5x$. This is a strictly increasing map of $X$ to itself--note that the least element is preserved--for which $f(Z) \leq Z$.
Who's confused: me or the author?