5

I am wondering if it is possible to "continuously" increase the dimension of Euclidean spaces — in other words, would it be possible to define Euclidean spaces of non-integer dimensions with nice topological properties?

I have thought about the way to generalize Euclidean space with nonnegative real dimension, and here are some axioms that I have set.

A sequence $\mathcal{R}$ of generalized topological spaces is given by the following data and properties:

  • For each nonnegative real $d \geqslant 0$, there corresponds a topological space $\mathcal{R}(d)$.
  • If $d \geqslant 0$ is an integer, then $\mathcal{R}(d)$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^d$.
  • If $d, e \geqslant 0$ satisfies $d \neq e$, then $\mathcal{R}(d)$ and $\mathcal{R}(e)$ are not homeomorphic to each other.
  • For each pair of nonnegative reals $d \geqslant e \geqslant 0$, there corresponds an embedding (i.e. a continuous injection) $\rho_{ed} : \mathcal{R}(e) \rightarrow \mathcal{R}(d)$.
  • If $d \geqslant 0$, then $\rho_{dd}$ is an identity function on $\mathcal{R}(D)$.
  • If $d \geqslant e \geqslant f \geqslant 0$, then $\rho_{ed} \circ \rho_{fe} = \rho_{fd}$.

Sequences of generalized Euclidean spaces, however, might not be set-theoretically unique, so we can define isomorphisms between such sequences. Two sequences $\mathcal{R}_1$ and $\mathcal{R}_2$ of generalized Euclidean spaces are said to isomorphic if:

  • There exists a proper mapping $\varphi : \mathbb{R}_{\geqslant 0} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}_{\geqslant 0}$.
  • For all $d \geqslant 0$, $\mathcal{R}_1(d)$ and $\mathcal{R}_2(\varphi(d))$ are homeomorphic to each other.

Now I wonder if such sequence of generalized Euclidean spaces exists, and if it is unique up to isomorphism provided that it exists.

Any feedback on either existence/uniqueness problem or general background of the question would be highly appreciated.

  • 1
    Do you have any evidence of existence? Related to that issue, you said you had an idea "to construct Euclidean space with nonnegative real dimension", but you did not give an idea of construction, just some axioms. – Lee Mosher Dec 26 '16 at 14:28
  • @LeeMosher Sorry, my wording was misleading. By the "idea for construction", I meant the idea for formulating the desired properties into axioms (which is the preceding step of construction). I just edited my question, and sorry again for my lack of English proficiency — I am a non-native English speaker. – user402005 Dec 26 '16 at 15:31

2 Answers2

4

Perhaps not an answer; too long for a comment.

Mathematicians usually look for generalizations when they have a problem to solve rather than a definition that seems as if it might be generalizable, so my first question would be "why do you want to do this, other than the fact that it seems interesting?"

You could start by thinking about fractals, which are geometric objects with well defined fractal dimension that need not be integral.

A google search for nested fractal found lots of links; perhaps some of them will be fruitful. You could also try fractal embedding or other synonyms that might address your fourth bullet.

Ethan Bolker
  • 95,224
  • 7
  • 108
  • 199
  • My original problem was to find a minimum of a function $f : \mathbb{R}^1 \cup \mathbb{R}^2 \cup \mathbb{R}^3 \cup \cdots \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. Once we restrict the domain into $\mathbb{R}^d$, say $f_d=f |_{\mathbb{R}^d}$, then the minimum of $f_d$ can be searched numerically by several algorithms. – user402005 Dec 26 '16 at 16:35
  • For example, gradient descent method searches minimum by calculating partial derivatives and and taking steps proportional to the negative of the gradient. Now, if one can take differentiation respect to variables in an (fixed) Euclidean space — I know that this might be a stupid question — then why not respect to the dimension of the space? – user402005 Dec 26 '16 at 16:35
  • 1
    I already knew that fractals can have fractional dimensions, but it was quite different from what I wanted. Next I sought for algebraic generalization of Euclidean spaces, but it appeared to be difficult to do that. (For example, it is natural to think about the property $\mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R}^m \simeq \mathbb{R}^{n+m}$, but there does not exist a topological space $X$ such that $X^2 \simeq \mathbb{R}$.) This is the reason I tried to think about the topological generalization of Euclidean space which I posted. – user402005 Dec 26 '16 at 16:41
2

$\newcommand{\Reals}{\mathbf{R}}$Here's a sketched construction of an increasing family of subsets of $\Reals^{\infty}$ (the space of eventually-zero sequences of reals) satisfying the stated axioms, modulo the existence of a set-valued function $P:[0, 1) \to \mathcal{P}(\Reals)$ with the properties that if $0 \leq s < t < 1$, then $P(s) \subset P(t)$ is a proper subset not homeomorphic to $P(t)$. (A prospective $P$ is to let $K$ denote the Cantor ternary set, use the axiom of choice to fix a bijection $p:(0, 1) \to K$, and to take $P(0) = \varnothing$ and $P(d) = p(0, d)$ if $0 < d < 1$.)

For each positive integer $k$, identify $\Reals^{k}$ with the set of sequences in $\Reals^{\infty}$ whose first $k$ components are arbitrary and all remaining components are zero.

Fix an increasing bijection $h:[0, 1) \to [0, \infty)$, such as $h(x) = x/(1 - x)$.

If $k \leq d < k+1$, define \begin{align*} \Reals(d) &= \bigl[\Reals^{k} \times (-h(d - k), h(d - k))\bigr] \cup \bigl[P(d - k) \times \Reals^{k}\bigr] \\ &= \{(x_{j})_{j=1}^{\infty} \in \Reals^{k+1} : |x_{k+1}| < h(d - k) \text{ or } x_{1} \in P(d - k)\}. \end{align*} The idea is to "thicken" $\Reals^{k}$ monotonically by expanding along the $(k + 1)$th coordinate, while "tagging" the result with the cylinder $P(d - k) \times \Reals^{k}$ to get mutually non-homeomorphic sets.

When $d = k$, the open interval $(-h(d - k), h(d - k))$ should be interpreted as the singleton $\{0\}$, so that $\Reals(k) = \Reals^{k}$ when $k$ is an integer. The embeddings $\rho_{ed}$ are set-theoretic inclusions.


Assuming this construction (or something like it) works, there's no hope of "uniqueness up to isomorphism". I haven't carefully checked details, however, and invite others to bolster or modify this answer accordingly. (It's likely there are better ways to "tag" the thickening, i.e., procedures that generate increasing families of sets that are clearly pairwise non-homeomorphic.)

  • 1
    The existence of $p$ does not need the axiom of choice. It follows from that the Cantor set and the unit interval has same cardinality. – Hanul Jeon Dec 26 '16 at 17:35