I wish to understand a remark made by Rubin in his book "Euler Systems" (just after definition 5.1) about the first cohomology group of an unramified Galois representation.
Let $K$ be a number field, $v$ a finite place of $K$ above the rational prime $l$. Denote by $K_v^{unr}$ the maximal unramified Galois extension of $K_v$, and by $I_v=\mathrm{Gal}(\overline{K_v}/K_v^{unr})$ the inertia group. Let $p\neq l$ be another prime and $T$ a $\mathbb{Z}_p$-module (which we can assume free of finite rank) together with a $\mathbb{Z}_p$-linear continuous $G_K=\mathrm{Gal}(\overline{K}/K)$-action. Let finally assume that $T$ is unramified at $v$ (i.e., $I_v$ acts trivially).
I want to understand why $$H^1(K_v,T)=\ker\left(H^1(K_v,T)\xrightarrow{\text{res}} H^1(I_v,T)^{\mathrm{Gal}(K_v^{unr}/K_v)}\right)$$
or equivalently, by considering the associated inflation-restriction sequence, that the inflation morphism $$\text{inf}: H^1(\mathrm{Gal}(K_v^{unr}/K_v),T)\rightarrow H^1(K_v,T)$$ is in fact an isomorphism.
What I did so far was to show that, given any $c\in H^1(I_v,T)^{\mathrm{Gal}(K_v^{unr}/K_v)}$, then $|k_v|\mathrm{Fr}_v\cdot{}c_{\sigma}=c_{\sigma}$ (modulo a switch between $|k_v|$ and $|k_v|^{-1}$, with $k_v$ the residue field of $K_v$ and $\mathrm{Fr}_v$ the Frobenius at $v$) for all $\sigma\in I_v$. But then I'm stuck when trying to show that this implies $c_{\sigma}=0$.
Edit: (just an obvious reformulation of the preceeding) if the (geometric) Frobenius has eigenvalues different from $|k_v|^{+/-1}$ then we're done. But I guess there must be easy cases where $|k_v|$ is an eigenvalue of the Frobenius.
Edit 2: The problem is solved, thanks to peter a g for providing this nice counter-example. In fact, denoting $H^1_f(K_v,T):=\ker\left(H^1(K_v,T)\xrightarrow{\text{res}} H^1(I_v,T)^{\mathrm{Gal}(K_v^{unr}/K_v)}\right)$, we have $$H^1(K_v,T)/H^1_f(K_v,T)\simeq T(-1)^{\mathrm{Fr}_v}$$ which is $0$ iff $|k_v|$ isn't an eigenvalue of $\mathrm{Fr}_v$ acting on $T$.
Thanks for your help !
Yoël.