While constructing the real numbers, we come across the order axioms, used to define the positive real numbers, i.e there exists a set $P$ such that the properties of trichotomy, closure under addition and multiplication hold. The axioms guarantee the existence of such a set. Will such a set be unique as well? I've tried proving this, and it should be trivial, but I can't seem to get it.
2 Answers
I assume "satisfies trichotomy" means "every real is positive, negative (= its additive inverse is positive), or zero.
Yes, if you have a reasonable set of axioms, you can show that the set of positive reals is uniquely defined. Specifically, you can prove that the set of positive reals is exactly $$\{x: \mbox{ for some $y\not=0$, $x=y\cdot y$}\}.$$ Note that this can be used to define the order relation: $x_1<x_2$ iff for some $y$, we have $y\cdot y+x_1=x_2$. So in fact, "$<$" does not need to be included as a primitive symbol.
Note: the list of axioms you have given so far are not enough - indeed, the field $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)$ satisfies them, but does not have a unique set of positive elements (since it has an automorphism swapping $\pi$ and $-\pi$). So I think you're missing an axiom or two . . .
How do you prove this?
Well, first suppose $x=y\cdot y$ for some $y$. Then
Can you show that $x=(-y)\cdot (-y)$ as well?
What does that tell you about $x$ (think about whether $y$ is positive or negative)?
This shows that the set I've defined is a subset of the positive reals. Now we want to show that it contains the positive reals. To do this, you need to argue that for any real $r$, either $r$ or $-r$ has a square root. You can't do that with only the axioms you've listed. I think you have another axiom or two lying around . . .
- 245,398
-
If you take $P$ to be the positive rationals and claim that it satisfies trichotomy, then is $\sqrt{2}$ positive, zero, or negative? – Jan 02 '17 at 17:46
-
@Hurkyl Ah, I read "satisfies trichotomy" as meaning "is totally ordered," but you're right, your interpretation is probably what the OP means (since every set of reals is totally ordered). – Noah Schweber Jan 02 '17 at 17:47
For general orderable fields, $P$ isn't unique — all you can say is that it must contain all sums of nonzero squares.
To see that $P$ must contain squares, note that if $x \neq 0$, then you have two cases:
- $x \in P$, and thus $x^2 \in P$
- $-x \in P$, and thus $(-x)^2 \in P$
Since $x^2 = (-x)^2$, either way we conclude $x^2 \in P$.
I believe there is a theorem that says that if neither $y$ nor $-y$ is a sum of squares, then there is a choice for $P$ containing $y$, and another choice for $P$ containing $-y$.
The reals are a special case, since the set of all nonzero squares already satisfies trichotomy, so $P$ can't contain anything else, thus $P$ is unique.
Is this set P unique? That was my question. It certainly exists (axiomatically). But can we guarantee uniqueness?
– Student Jan 02 '17 at 17:42