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Let $X$ be a topological space, $A\subset X$ and $B=Fr(A)$.

I have two questions.

  1. How do you prove that if $A$ is open or closed, then $B^\circ=\emptyset$?

  2. Why can this not be proven for a set that is both open and closed?

Asaf Karagila
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Barbara
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1 Answers1

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$$(Fr(A))^\circ=(\overline{A}\cap \overline{A^c})^\circ=(\overline{A})^\circ\cap (\overline{A^c})^\circ=A^\circ\cap (A^c)^\circ=A^\circ\cap (\overline{A})^c=\emptyset$$

Barbara
  • 849
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    It’s not necessarily true that $\operatorname{int}\operatorname{cl}A=\operatorname{int}A$: consider the set $A=(0,1)\cup(1,2)$ in $\Bbb R$. – Brian M. Scott Jan 09 '17 at 20:07