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What is the difference, if any, between $x \in {(1,3)}$ and $1<x<3$ . Is it right to assume that in the second case $'x'$ might lie anywhere in the interval, but the first case tells us that all the values in the parentheses "must" be possible for a number?

Petra
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  • As far as I know, they are the same. I am not familiar with an interpretation where the endpoints "'must' be possible." – angryavian Jan 13 '17 at 02:41

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$1 < x < 3$ and $x \in (1, 3)$ mean exactly the same thing: the open interval $(a, b)$ is by definition the set $\{x \mid a < x < b\}$ so the assertion $x \in (1, 3)$ is equivalent to the assertion $1 < x < 3$. Don't try to read too much into "elegant variations" of notation.

Rob Arthan
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