0

I am looking for a purely mathematical example. I tried looking for a set of symmetric matrices $\{F_1,F_2\}$ such that $F_1+F_2=I$ but I cannot seem to find an example.

  • 4
    Please consider spelling out acronyms. – AccidentalFourierTransform Jan 13 '17 at 14:06
  • Why not take F_1 to be the diagonal matrix with .5 and .4 on the diagonal and F_2 the diagonal matrix with .5 and .6? – Martin Jan 13 '17 at 14:14
  • There's a POVM that distinguishes |0> from |0>+|1> without making "silent" errors (it has a "distinguishing failed, input lost" result instead). Pretty sure the corresponding PVM requires ancilla and prep operations. – Craig Gidney Jan 13 '17 at 16:00
  • To expand Martin's comment, you need also to specify the borel sets that map to either one of the two matrices. The easiest example would be, as a measure on $\mathbb {R} $, the measure $\mu $ such that $\mu ([0])=F_1$ and $\mu ([1]) =F_2$ and $\mu (B) =0$ for any other borel set $B $ disjoint from those two. – yuggib Jan 14 '17 at 07:40
  • Might [math.se] (maybe even [mathoverflow.se]?) be better suited for this question? – Kyle Kanos Jan 14 '17 at 18:29
  • Acronyms: "Positive Operator Valued Measure" and "Projection Valued Measure". – Ben Grossmann Jan 17 '17 at 04:14

1 Answers1

2

To do an example as you want, you take $F_1$ to be any positive matrix with $F_1\leq I$ (equivalently, $F_1$ is selfadjoint, and its eigenvalues are in $[0,1]$), and then take $F_2=I-F_1$. As a simplest example you could take $$ F_1=\begin{bmatrix}1/2&0\\0&1/3\end{bmatrix},\ \ \ F_2=\begin{bmatrix}1/2&0\\0&2/3\end{bmatrix}. $$

Martin Argerami
  • 205,756