Can you give me an example which shows well the difference between them?
Asked
Active
Viewed 525 times
1 Answers
0
We have the theorem: let be $[K,k]<\infty $ then the following is equivalent:
$1)$ $K$ is normal extension
$2)$ $K$ is splitting field over $k$ for some $f(x)\in k[x]$.
but we know that if $\bar k$ is algebraically closed field of $k$ then $\bar k$ is normal extension of $k$ but $\bar k$ isnot splitting field of $k$.
for example: if $f(x)=x^2+1 \in \mathbb Q[x] $ then $\mathbb Q(i)$ is spilitting field of $f(x)$ and $\mathbb Q(i)$ is normal extension of $\mathbb Q$. on other hand we have $\bar{\mathbb Q}$ is normal extension but not spilitting field.
Mustafa
- 1,590
-
Could you check this link http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/198635/splitting-field-of-a-family-of-polynomials/198661#198661 – kswim Jan 20 '17 at 17:45
-
Also, every algebraic closure of a field $F$ is a splitting field over $F$. – kswim Jan 20 '17 at 17:46