If exists $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}(f_{n+1}-f_{n})=L,$ then by definition
$$(\forall \varepsilon>0)\quad (\exists n_{\varepsilon}\in \mathbb{N}):\quad (\forall n\geqslant n_{\varepsilon})\\L-\varepsilon<f_{n+1}-f_{n}<L+\varepsilon,$$ i.e. for $n\geqslant n_{\varepsilon}$
$$L-\varepsilon<f_{n_{\varepsilon}+1}-f_{n_{\varepsilon}}<L+\varepsilon\\
L-\varepsilon<f_{n_{\varepsilon}+2}-f_{n_{\varepsilon}+1}<L+\varepsilon\\
\vdots\\L-\varepsilon<f_{n}-f_{n-1}<L+\varepsilon.$$ Adding these inequalities, we have
$$(n-n_{\varepsilon})(L-\varepsilon)<f_{n}-f_{n_{\varepsilon}}<(n-n_{\varepsilon})(L+\varepsilon),$$
$$\left(1-\dfrac{n_{\varepsilon}}{n}\right)(L-\varepsilon)<\dfrac{f_{n}-f_{n_{\varepsilon}}}{n}<\left(1-\dfrac{n_{\varepsilon}}{n}\right)(L+\varepsilon),\\
\left(1-\dfrac{n_{\varepsilon}}{n}\right)(L-\varepsilon)+\dfrac{f_{n_{\varepsilon}}}{n}<\dfrac{f_{n}}{n}<\left(1-\dfrac{n_{\varepsilon}}{n}\right)(L+\varepsilon)+\dfrac{f_{n_{\varepsilon}}}{n}.
$$
Therefore, (omitting some technical details) we may conclude that exists $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}\dfrac{f_n}{n}=L$
Thank you.
– kaiserphellos Oct 11 '12 at 09:20