I am kind of confused by the following problem, and wondering if someone could give me some hints. Many thanks!
In optimal control theory, the target set is a description of restrictions on the endpoints. For example, a fixed-time, free-endpoint problem could be formulated as $$\min_{u(t)}\int_0^TL(t,x(t),u(t))\,dt$$ $$\text{s.t.}\,\,\dot{x}(t)=f(t,x(t),u(t)),\,\,x(0)=x_0>0, \,\,u(t)\in U\subseteq \mathbb R.$$ That is, there are no constraints on the value of $x(T)$ and hence it can take any achievable value. But it is possible that due to the setup of the problem, $x(T)$ can only reach a proper subset of $\mathbb R$ rather than the whole $\mathbb R$. For example, if $U=[0,1]$ and $$x(t)=x_0\exp\left\{-\int_0^tu(s)\,ds\right\},$$ then $x(T)$ can only reach a point in $(x_0e^{-T},x_0]$ for any admissible control. In this case, should the target set be $\{T\}\times \mathbb R$ or $\{T\}\times (x_0e^{-T},x_0]$? The answer to this question is important to correctly using the Maximum Principle, since the necessary conditions for optimality depend on the form of the target set.
By contrast, the set of all states that can be reached with the given control dynamics ($\dot{x} = \ldots$) is called the reachable set (or attainable set).
– avs Jan 30 '17 at 04:45