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I came across the definition of the sinc function when it is normalized as sinc(t)= sin(pi.t)/pi.t. So if we scale the argument of the normalized sinc function as sinc(at), will that equal sin(a.pi.t)/a.pi.t? Can anyone pls explain?

Amit Sonik
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1 Answers1

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Yes, it will. It might be easier to see if you write $sinc(as)$, and then replaced $t$ everywhere in the definition with $as$.

John Hughes
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