0

Let $f: \mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{C}$ denote a continous function in $L_1(\mathbb{R})$. Does this imply that there exists a function $G: \mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{C}$ in $L_1(\mathbb{R})$ such that $f$ is $G$'s fourier transform?

John
  • 1,019
Gal
  • 13
  • 2

1 Answers1

3

No. For one thing, the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma says the Fourier transform of an $L^1$ function goes to $0$ at $\pm \infty$.

But even if you make that assumption, not every continuous function that goes to $0$ at $\pm \infty$ is the Fourier transform of an $L^1$ function. One way to prove this is to show that there are $L^1$ functions of norm $1$ whose Fourier transforms have arbitrarily small supremum norm.

Robert Israel
  • 448,999