I have a hard time understanding why this statement is true, I have used many examples and it holds true if $a, b$ and $c$ are the same integer. Could someone help me understand why?
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2$a\mid b$ implies $a\le b$. – Hanul Jeon Feb 04 '17 at 15:48
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Note that $$a|b \implies a \le b$$ $$b|c \implies b \le c$$ $$c|a \implies c \le a$$ As $a,b,c$ are positive integers. So we have that $a \le b \le c \le a$. So we have $a=b=c$.
S.C.B.
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