we know that $\pi^2 \int_0^a |f|^2 dx \leq a^2 \int_0^a |f'|^2 dx$ if $f$ is $C^1$ and $f(0)=f(a)=0$. I am interested in is this inequality also valid if $f(0) \neq 0$?
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No. Let $f(x)=1-x$ and $a=1$. Then:
$$\pi^2 \int_0^1 (1-x)^2\ dx =\frac{\pi^2}{3}> \int_0^1 (-1)^2\ dx=1$$
0
No. Take $a=1$ and $f(x)=1-x$
Then $\pi^2 \int_0^1 |f|^2 dx =\frac{\pi^2}{3}$ but $ \int_0^1 |f'|^2 dx=1$
Fred
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Great minds think alike? :) – Feb 22 '17 at 14:59
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I agree with you ! – Fred Feb 22 '17 at 15:06