1

How do I prove that $\sum_{k=1}^{2^m}\frac{1}{k}>1+\frac{m}{2}$?

I have used it in an exercise but I want to know why it is like that.

Jack D'Aurizio
  • 353,855
Ghost
  • 1,105
  • Integral test? Cauchy condensation test? – Simply Beautiful Art Mar 01 '17 at 17:11
  • The two questions (I am talking about the current one and http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1851770/prove-by-induction-that-sum-i-12n-frac1i-ge-1-fracn2-forall?noredirect=1&lq=1) are not the same, since in this question we do not have to use induction at all costs. I am voting for reopening. – Jack D'Aurizio Mar 02 '17 at 12:57

1 Answers1

2

Simple way: assuming $m\geq 2$, $$ \sum_{k=1}^{2^m}\frac{1}{k} = 1+\sum_{h=0}^{m-1}\color{red}{\sum_{k=2^h+1}^{2^{h+1}}\frac{1}{k}}>1+\sum_{h=0}^{m-1}\frac{2^h}{2^{h+1}}=1+\frac{m}{2} $$ since every red sum is made by $2^h$ terms, the smallest of them being $\frac{1}{2^{h+1}}$.
This is the key idea of Cauchy's condensation test.


Now something more accurate. Since $\frac{1}{x}$ is decreasing, positive and convex on $\mathbb{R}^+$,
by the Hermite-Hadamard inequality we have: $$ \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\ldots+\frac{1}{2^m-1}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2^m}>\int_{1}^{2^m}\frac{dx}{x} = m\log(2) $$ hence: $$ H_{2^m}>\frac{1}{2}+m\log(2) $$ that is a stronger inequality, since $\log(2)\approx\frac{61}{88}>\frac{1}{2}.$

Jack D'Aurizio
  • 353,855