I've worked through Henkin's proof of completeness, but now that I look back over it, I'm a little confused about what the actual statement of the completeness theorem is. Some of my sources state the theorem as:
Let $\Phi$ be a set of sentences, and $\phi$ a sentence. If $\Phi \vDash \phi$, then $\Phi \vdash \phi$.
While others state it as:
For any set of wff's $\Phi$ and for any wff $\phi$, if $\Phi \vDash \phi$, then $\Phi \vdash \phi$.
So do the well-formed-formulas have to be sentences, meaning they contain no free variables, in order for the completeness theorem to apply? Or is this true for any well-formed-formulas?
The sources that don't include the no free variables requirement do mention things like "treating all free variables appearing in any wff as names for particular elements in a structure", or "inserting corresponding universal quantifiers at the beginning of the formula if there are any free variables", which I imagine is probably in some way related to them being able to apply the completeness theorem to all wffs, but they don't provide any additional information, so I don't really understand what these actions actually mean, why we can do them, or what effects they are supposed to have.
I can't find any simple statement of the completeness theorem online that is in like actual mathematical notation to compare with. They all just vaguely explain in words what the theorem implies. So I'm having trouble deciding which of my sources to trust.