I am new to boolean algebra questions so if anyone can help me pointing out thinking errors (if there are any) that would be fantastic. I am trying to solve the following:
if x ⊔ y' = 1 then x ⊔ y = x
Definitions:
The problem with operators ⊔ and ⊓ is a boolean algebra
y' = complement of y
1 and 0 are the identity elements: a ⊔ 1 = 1, a ⊓ 0 = 1, these properties must hold for every element from a set.
a ⊔ 0 = a
a ⊔ a' = 1
Proof
Based on the definitions I first want to look at x ⊔ y' = 1. From our given definitions there are two ways in which this can be the case. The first way is if y' = x'. The second way is if y' = 1.
1. If y' = x' then from definition a ⊔ a' = 1 it follows that x ⊔ y = x because: x ⊔ x' = x (idempotence).
2. If y' = 1 then it follows that x = y' can be rewritten as x ⊔ 1' which can be rewritten as x ⊔ 0 which equals x.
This shows that if x ⊔ y' = 1 then x ⊔ y = x.
Note: I am aware that the same problem has already been asked, I am trying to verify my different solution.
Link: Prove that: if $x \sqcup \bar{y}=1$, then $x \sqcup y=x$ (in a Boolean algebra)