Let $R$ be a commutative ring, let $A$ be an $R$-algebra, let $S\subset A$ be a multiplicative subset, and let $M$ be an $R$-module. Is it true that
$\mathrm{Tor}_p^R(S^{-1}A,M) \cong S^{-1}\mathrm{Tor}_p^R(A,M)$ ?
The first problem is that I don't even see how the right hand side makes sense. For that, I would need $\mathrm{Tor}_p^R(A,M)$ to be an $A$-module, but how is it so? For $p=0$, this is $A\otimes_R M$ and it is, indeed, an $A$-module, but if I take a projective resolution of $R$-modules $P_\bullet \to A$, the $P_i$ need not be $A$-modules, so this line of thought doesn't go through...