2

Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be a bounded $C^1$-domain and $\varphi$ be a continuos function on $\partial\Omega$. Let $u\in C^2(\Omega ) \cap C^1(\bar{\Omega})$ a solution of the problem:

$$\Delta u -u^3=f\qquad \text{in}\quad\Omega$$ $$u =\varphi\qquad \text{in}\quad\partial \Omega$$

I want to show the uniqueness of the solution.

I try to use the energy method. I considered $u_1$ and $u_2$ two solutions of the problem and then I made $w=u_1-u_2$. So I hade the following problem:

$$\Delta w -u_1^3+u_2^3=0\qquad \text{in}\quad\Omega$$ $$w =0\qquad \text{in}\quad\partial \Omega$$

I saw that $u_1^3-u_2^3=w(u_1^2+u_1u_2+u_2^2)$. And then, after multiplying the first equation by $w$ and after integrate in $\Omega$, I got:

$$\int_{\Omega}|\nabla w|^2 dx + \int_{\Omega}w^2(u_1^2+u_1u_2+u_2^2) dx=0$$

My question now is: Since $u_1^2+u_2^2\geq\frac{u_1^2+u_2^2}{2}\geq u_1u_2$, can I conclude that both integrals are equal to zero, because they are greater or equal to zero or do I need to prove anything else or is there another way to prove the uniqueness of the solution?

Thank you.

BA_94
  • 31
  • I think that it is OK. You have shown that both integrals are nonnegative, so you have a sum $I_1+I_2=0$ with $I_1\ge 0,\ I_2\ge 0$, which implies that everything is $0$. In particular, $w$ is constant (vanishing gradient) and so it must be identically zero because of the boundary condition. – Giuseppe Negro Mar 16 '17 at 11:18

0 Answers0