10

I stumbled upon the following problem in my research. We are trying to analyze $Z=\min(X,Y)$ where $X \sim Pois(p\lambda)$ and $Y\sim Pois((1-p)\lambda)$. Note that the RVs expectation is related yet not identical but are independent.

What we are most interested in is a closed form expression for $\mathbb{E}Z$. Or, alternatively, an expression simple enough to prove with that the expectation $\mathbb{E}Z$ is attained at $p=\frac{1}{2}$

I managed to find very little literature on the subject. I saw that in some places this scenario is called a "Poisson Race", but couldn't find anything that is relevant to me.

I tried to go the manual way: \begin{equation} \begin{split} \mathbb{E} Z & = \sum_{n\geq 1} \Pr(min(X,Y) \geq n) \\ & = \sum_{n\geq 1} \Pr(X\geq n\ \text{and}\ Y\geq n) \\ & = \sum_{n\geq 1} \Pr(X\geq n)\cdot \Pr(Y\geq n) \\ & = \sum_{n\geq 1}\Bigg[\Bigg(\sum_{i\geq n} \frac{(p \lambda)^i e^{-p\lambda}}{i!} \Bigg)\Bigg(\sum_{i\geq n} \frac{((1-p) \lambda)^i e^{-(1-p)\lambda}}{i!} \Bigg)\Bigg] \\ & = e^{-\lambda}\sum_{n\geq 1}\Bigg[\Bigg(\sum_{i\geq n} \frac{(p \lambda)^i}{i!} \Bigg)\Bigg(\sum_{i\geq n} \frac{((1-p) \lambda)^i }{i!} \Bigg)\Bigg] \\ & = e^{-\lambda}\sum_{n\geq 1}\Bigg[\Bigg(e^x-e_{n-1}(p\lambda) \Bigg)\Bigg(e^x - e_{n-1}((1-p)\lambda) \Bigg)\Bigg] \\ \end{split} \end{equation}

But this didn't lead to any relatively simple terms. Tried looking into Gamma Taylor partial sums of $e^x$ and Gamma functions $\Gamma (x)$ but again, with no result.

What is obvious, due to the symmetry of the function is that the max is attained at $p=\frac{1}{2}$. Does one see any way to prove so without having to derive once and twice and do all the dirty work?


$e_n(x)$ is the Exponential Sum Function

eyals
  • 130
  • I think It's better to ask in http://mathoverflow.net – MR_BD Mar 22 '17 at 20:26
  • 2
    OP: Is the question to show that $E(Z)$ is maximal at $p=\frac12$, for every fixed $\lambda$? – Did Mar 22 '17 at 20:43
  • 2
  • @mlc The poisson variables aren't identical hence it's not a duplicate – eyals Mar 22 '17 at 21:21
  • @Did No. I'm genuinely interested in what $\mathbb{E}Z$ looks like in terms of $p$. But since it seems to be hard to simplify the term, I started focusing on what happens only at the max of the expression – eyals Mar 22 '17 at 21:24
  • 1
    @LeilaHatami, correct me if I'm wrong, but mathoverflow.net is a place where a researcher asks a question related to his field of expertise. I'm a game theoretic mathematician diving a bit deeper to the world of probability hence asking the help from people who do that for a living. So I thought math.stackexchange is more appropriate? – eyals Mar 26 '17 at 19:29
  • Your question got 3 good answers. So probably you asked it in an appropriate forum. – MR_BD Mar 26 '17 at 21:09
  • @LeilaHatami Yes. Very clever insights. But unfortanately no answer to the original problem, yet... – eyals Mar 26 '17 at 23:18

4 Answers4

4

$\newcommand{\bbx}[1]{\,\bbox[8px,border:1px groove navy]{\displaystyle{#1}}\,} \newcommand{\braces}[1]{\left\lbrace\,{#1}\,\right\rbrace} \newcommand{\bracks}[1]{\left\lbrack\,{#1}\,\right\rbrack} \newcommand{\dd}{\mathrm{d}} \newcommand{\ds}[1]{\displaystyle{#1}} \newcommand{\expo}[1]{\,\mathrm{e}^{#1}\,} \newcommand{\ic}{\mathrm{i}} \newcommand{\mc}[1]{\mathcal{#1}} \newcommand{\mrm}[1]{\mathrm{#1}} \newcommand{\pars}[1]{\left(\,{#1}\,\right)} \newcommand{\partiald}[3][]{\frac{\partial^{#1} #2}{\partial #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\root}[2][]{\,\sqrt[#1]{\,{#2}\,}\,} \newcommand{\totald}[3][]{\frac{\mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{\mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}} \newcommand{\verts}[1]{\left\vert\,{#1}\,\right\vert}$ \begin{align} \mathbb{E}\bracks{Z} & = \mathbb{E}\bracks{\min\braces{X,Y}} = \mathbb{E}\bracks{X + Y - \verts{X - Y} \over 2} = {1 \over 2}\,\mathbb{E}\bracks{X} + {1 \over 2}\,\mathbb{E}\bracks{Y} - {1 \over 2}\,\mathbb{E}\bracks{\verts{X - Y}} \\[5mm] & = {1 \over 2}\,p\lambda + {1 \over 2}\,\pars{1 - p}\lambda - {1 \over 2}\,\mathbb{E}\bracks{\verts{X - Y}} = {1 \over 2}\lambda - {1 \over 2}\,\color{#66f}{\mathbb{E}\bracks{\verts{X - Y}}} \end{align}


With $\ds{x \equiv p\lambda}$ and $\ds{y \equiv \pars{1 - p}\lambda}$: \begin{align} \color{#66f}{\mathbb{E}\bracks{\verts{X - Y}}} & = \sum_{m = 0}^{\infty}{x^{m}\expo{-p\lambda} \over m!} \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}{y^{n}\expo{-\pars{1 - p}\lambda} \over n!}\,\verts{m - n} \\[5mm] & = \expo{-\lambda} \sum_{m = 0}^{\infty}\sum_{n = 0}^{m}{x^{m}\,y^{n} \over m!\,n!}\pars{m - n} + \expo{-\lambda} \sum_{m = 0}^{\infty}\sum_{n = m}^{\infty}{x^{m}\,y^{n} \over m!\,n!} \pars{n - m} \\[5mm] & = \expo{-\lambda} \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}\sum_{m = n}^{\infty}{x^{m}\,y^{n} \over m!\,n!} \pars{m - n} + \expo{-\lambda} \sum_{m = 0}^{\infty}\sum_{n = m}^{\infty}{x^{m}\,y^{n} \over m!\,n!} \pars{n - m} \\[5mm] & = \expo{-\lambda}\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}\sum_{m = n}^{\infty} {x^{m}\,y^{n} + x^{n}\,y^{m} \over m!\,n!}\pars{m - n} = \expo{-\lambda}\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}\sum_{m = 0}^{\infty} {x^{m + n}\,y^{n} + x^{n}\,y^{m + n} \over \pars{m + n}!\,n!}m \\[5mm] & = \sum_{m = 0}^{\infty}m\pars{x^{m} + y^{m}} \sum_{n = 0}^{\infty}{\pars{xy}^{n} \over \pars{m + n}!\,n!} \\[5mm] & = \sum_{m = 0}^{\infty}m\bracks{\pars{x \over y}^{m/2} + \pars{y \over x}^{m/2}} \,\mrm{I}_{m}\pars{2\root{xy}} \end{align}

where $\ds{\,\mrm{I}_{\nu}}$ is the Modified Bessel Function of the First Kind.

Our result, '$so\ far$', is given by \begin{align} \mathbb{E}\bracks{Z} & = \mathbb{E}\bracks{\min\braces{X,Y}} \\[5mm] & = {1 \over 2}\lambda - {1 \over 2} \sum_{m = 0}^{\infty}m \bracks{\pars{p \over 1 - p}^{m/2} + \pars{1 - p \over p}^{m/2}} \,\mrm{I}_{m}\pars{2\root{p\bracks{1 - p}}\lambda} \end{align}

Felix Marin
  • 89,464
  • Hey, thanks for the response! A few questions, shouldnt it be $\sum_{m+1}^\inf$ in the second part of the second line? Now it seems we are counting twice the term? In the third line, shouldn't it be $x^my^n-x^ny^m$? – eyals Mar 23 '17 at 14:55
  • 1
    @eyals The term $n = m$ vanishes out. "By symmetry", I kept it. Thanks. – Felix Marin Mar 23 '17 at 16:34
  • Thanks! Now it looks better. I'll go over the steps slowly to make sure there's no small mistake. However, in this "final" form, is it easier to prove $p=\frac{1}{2}$ is the max (easier than deriving twice the original expression? Tried to upvote but my rep dropped suddenly. – eyals Mar 23 '17 at 17:32
  • @eyals Thanks. You can 'upvote' later. – Felix Marin Mar 23 '17 at 18:11
  • 1
    @eyals "Any opinions?" Here is one: when $p\to0$ or $p\to1$, $E(Z)\to0$ hence your final formula cannot hold. – Did Jul 09 '17 at 21:34
  • @Did That last edit wasn't supposed to be published. Realized the mixup with the series count. Sorry for that – eyals Jul 10 '17 at 10:32
1

Comment. I played with this without getting anything nearly as elegant as @FelixMartin's Answer (+1). I did a quick simulation and found that the relationship between $\mu = E(Z)$ and $p$ depends on the value of $\lambda.$ (In view of @Misha's result, I had initial hopes $\lambda$ might not be crucial, but that seemed counter-intuitive.) For what they may be worth, I post graphs of $\mu/\lambda$ against $p$ for six values of $\lambda.$ (The simulated values should be accurate within the resolution of the plots.)

enter image description here

Addendum. Crude R code is provided below, as requested in Comment. There are two alternative lines beginning z = replicate.... The one with pmin was my initial method. The one with abs was to verify that @FelixMartin's formula gives the same results as mine. Put # at the beginning of the line you want to omit. (Increase 10^3 to 10^4 and 5000 to 10000 for smaller simulation error; slower and not necessary for graphs.) Of course, simulation is for visualization and verification only.

par(mfrow=c(2,3))  # enables six panels per plot
lamb = c(.5, 1, 10, 25, 100, 1000); m=6
for(j in 1:m)      # outer loop for 6 values of lambda
  {
  lam = lamb[j]
  p=seq(.0, 1, by=.05); B = length(p); mu=numeric(B)
  for(i in 1:B)    # inner loop for B values of p
    {   
    pp=p[i]
    z = replicate( 10^3, lam/2 - .5*mean(abs(rpois(5000,pp*lam)-rpois(5000,(1-pp)*lam))) )
    # z = replicate( 10^3, mean(pmin(rpois(5000,pp*lam),rpois(5000,(1-pp)*lam))) )
    # 2nd 'replicate' for z can be substituted for first
    mu[i] = mean(z) }
                   # end inner loop
  plot(p, mu/lam, pch=19, ylim=c(0,.5), main=paste("lambda =",lamb[j]))  }                
                   # end outer loop
par(mfrow=c(1,1))  # returns to default single-panel plot
BruceET
  • 51,500
  • 1
    Thanks! What did you use to generate those with btw? Could you share the source? – eyals Mar 24 '17 at 23:15
  • 1
    I used R statistical software. I edited my code with comments, checked that it still runs, and pasted it into an Addendum to my Answer/Comment. The code is not elegant and was not really written for others to see, but there it is. (Hope you will click check mark to 'Accept' @FelixMartin's analytic solution.) – BruceET Mar 25 '17 at 02:38
  • Thanks a lot! I'll try to run it. I'm kinda new here so maybe I should ask. While @FelixMartin answer is helpful and I did upvote it (very cleverly modified the second series into a Bessel function), it doesnt provide a "relatively simple" solution. Or a simpler way to prove that the maximum is attained at $\frac{1}{2}$ (to my understanding). So should I still mark it as an answer as it is very helpful? – eyals Mar 25 '17 at 10:44
  • Your choice. Maybe someone is going to come along with a nice simple analytic answer. But I think it is an inherently messy problem and his elegant analytic solution may be the best you will get. We should know in a few days. // Intuitively, if either $\mathsf{Pois}(\lambda p)$ or $\mathsf{Pois}(\lambda (1-p))$ has a high probability of being near 0, then $E(Z)$ is small. – BruceET Mar 25 '17 at 16:43
  • I'll edit the question so it will be clear. That I'm looking for a representation simple enough so that proving the max is attained at $\frac{1}{2}$ isn't a technical nightmare. While @FelixMartin answer is clever, it doesn't help with the reason I'm here for – eyals Mar 25 '17 at 19:24
  • Just out of curiosity, why did you decide to use 'rpois' and simulate, while 'ppois' could have given the exact result for $P(X>n)$ (to the better of my understanding in R)? – eyals Mar 26 '17 at 23:39
  • Because rpois generates random samples from a given Poisson distribution. Can't use CDF ppois unless I have a particular Poisson dist'n in mind. And I don't know the dist'n of $|X - Y|$ (or of $\min(X,Y)$). – BruceET Mar 26 '17 at 23:48
  • Maybe I miss understood my R sources. Thought once we set $\lambda, p$ don't we have all we need... – eyals Mar 26 '17 at 23:50
  • Yes. But don't $\mathbb{E}Z = \sum_{n\geq 1} \Pr(X\geq n)\cdot \Pr(Y\geq n) $ – eyals Mar 26 '17 at 23:56
  • CDF for $X$ or CDF of $Y$, yes. But not CDF of $Z$. If CDF of $Z$ were known then getting $E(Z)$ would not be difficult. Sorry, but you're missing the point of doing the simulation. – BruceET Mar 26 '17 at 23:58
1

The answer is a continuation of the one by @MishaLavrov. Specifically, I prove that:

Claim: $\forall n: E[Z|X+Y=n]$ (considered as a function of $p$) is maximized at $p=1/2$.

This allows us to conclude that $E[Z] = \sum_n E[Z|X+Y=n] P(X+Y=n)$ is also maximized at $p=1/2$.

Several people have pointed out that this result is "obvious", and I agree. :) So my proof might be a bit more detailed than usual, because the whole point is to be more rigorous than perhaps customary. Apologies in advance for the tediousness!

Also, the proof is a symmetry argument, and does not come close to obtaining a closed form for general $p$ (which can then be differentiated, etc).


Consider a "trinomial" experiment: You roll an unfair $3$-sided die with faces $a,b,c$ and probabilities $p, ({1\over 2} - p), {1\over 2}$ respectively, where $p \in [0, {1\over 2}]$. You roll this die $n$ times and record the results as a sequence $\omega \in \{a,b,c\}^n$, e.g. $\omega = ccabacbcaac$. In other words $\Omega = \{a,b,c\}^n$ is the sample space and each $\omega$ is a sample point.

(Preview: the symmetry exploited will be changing every $a$ to $c$ and vice versa, but we need some preliminaries before we get there.)

Let $A,B,C$ be random variables denoting the number of $a,b,c$ (respectively) in $\omega$. Next we define/identify:

  • $X = A \sim Bin(n,p)$

  • $Y = B+C = n-X \sim Bin(n,1-p)$

  • $Z = \min(X,Y) = \min(A,B+C)$ is the value of interest

  • $X' = A+B \sim Bin(n,1/2)$

  • $Y' = C = n-X' \sim Bin(n,1/2)$

  • $Z' = \min(X',Y') = \min(A+B,C)$ is what $Z$ would have been if $p =1/2$

  • $W = Z' - Z$

  • $D = C - A$

Claim: $E[W] \ge 0\ \forall p \in [0,1/2]$, with equality iff $p = 1/2$.

Corollary: Above claim $\implies E[Z'] \ge E[Z] \ \forall p \in [0,1/2]$, i.e. $E[Z]$ is maximized at $p=1/2$.

Proof: Partition $\Omega$ into $5$ events based on $D = C - A$:

  • $E_0: C - A = 0:$ in this case $W = 0$

  • $E_1: C - A > B:$ in this case $W = (A+B) - A = B$

  • $E_2: C - A < -B:$ in this case $W = C - (B+C) = -B$

  • $E_3: B \ge C - A > 0:$ in this case $W = C - A = D$ (Note: this event $\implies B>0$)

  • $E_4: -B \le C - A < 0:$ in this case $W = C - A = D$ (Note: this event $\implies B>0$)

Now the symmetry: consider the mapping $f:\Omega \rightarrow \Omega$ where for each sample point, i.e. every sequence $\omega, f()$ changes every $a$ into $c$ and every $c$ into $a$. E.g. $f(ccabcabc) = aacbacba$. Clearly, $f$ is bijective and its own inverse. More importantly:

  • $\forall \omega: A(\omega) = C(f(\omega)), C(\omega) = A(f(\omega))$

  • $\forall \omega: D(\omega) = -D(f(\omega))$ since $D = C-A$

  • Defining, as usual, $f(E_j)$ as the range $\{f(\omega) | \omega \in E_j\}$, then we have: $f(E_0) = E_0, f(E_1) = E_2, f(E_2) = E_1, f(E_3) = E_4, f(E_4) = E_3$ since the event definitions involve ranges that are symmetric about $0$.

  • $\forall \omega: W(\omega) = -W(f(\omega))$. This takes a little more algebra to see:

    • For $E_0: W=D=0$

    • For $E_1, E_2:$ the values are $W = \pm B$ and $f(E_1) = E_2, f(E_2) = E_1$.

    • For $E_3, E_4: W = D$ and we have $W(\omega) = D(\omega) = -D(f(\omega)) = -W(f(\omega))$

Now by definition, $E[W] = \sum_{\omega \in \Omega} W(\omega) P(\omega) = \sum^4_{j=0} \sum_{\omega \in E_j} W(\omega) P(\omega)$. The $E_0$ term contributes nothing and can be dropped since in that case $W = 0$. Thus:

$$E[W] =\sum_{\omega \in E_1} W(\omega) P(\omega) + \sum_{\omega \in E_2} W(\omega) P(\omega) + \sum_{\omega \in E_3} W(\omega) P(\omega) + \sum_{\omega \in E_4} W(\omega) P(\omega)$$

Next, consider the first pair of events:

$$\sum_{\omega \in E_1} W(\omega) P(\omega) + \sum_{\omega \in E_2} W(\omega) P(\omega)$$

$$= \sum_{\omega \in E_1} W(\omega) P(\omega) + \sum_{\omega \in E_1} W(f(\omega)) P(f(\omega))$$

$$= \sum_{\omega \in E_1} W(\omega) P(\omega) + \sum_{\omega \in E_1} -W(\omega) P(f(\omega))$$

$$= \sum_{\omega \in E_1} W(\omega) (P(\omega) - P(f(\omega)) = (**)$$

Finally we get to the root of the symmetry. Consider any specific sequence $\omega$ where the random variables $A,B,C$ take values $n_A, n_B, n_C$. Then:

  • $P(\omega) = p^{n_A} ({1\over 2} - p)^{n_B} {1\over 2}^{n_C}$ (No need for the multinomial ${n \choose n_A, n_B, n_C}$ because $\omega$ is one specific sequence.)

  • $P(f(\omega)) = p^{n_C} ({1\over 2} - p)^{n_B} {1\over 2}^{n_A}$

  • If $n_C > n_A$ then $P(\omega) / P(f(\omega)) = ({1 \over 2} / p)^{n_C - n_A} \ge 1$, i.e. $P(\omega) \ge P(f(\omega))$, with equality iff $p = 1/2$.

Now for $\omega \in E_1$, we have both $W(\omega) > 0$ and $P(\omega) - P(f(\omega)) \ge 0$, so $(**) \ge 0$

The same is true for the other pair $E_3, E_4$. To conclude, $E[W] = \sum^4_{j=0} \sum_{\omega \in E_j} W(\omega) P(\omega) \ge 0$ with equality iff $p = 1/2$.

antkam
  • 15,363
0

I couldn't find (by math or by Google) any closed form for the expectation, but here is some partial progress.

If $X, Y$ are Poisson with rates $\lambda p$ and $\lambda(1-p)$, then $X+Y$ is Poisson with rate $\lambda$, and when we condition on the value of $X+Y$, we have: $$\Pr[X = k \mid X+Y = n] = \binom nk p^k (1-p)^{n-k}$$ (In other words, $X$ and $Y$ are binomial when $X+Y$ is fixed to $n$.)

It will probably be easier to show that $\mathbb E[Z \mid X+Y=n]$ is maximized when $p = \frac12$, and conclude that $\mathbb E[Z]$ is also maximized when $p = \frac12$, than to deal with $\mathbb E[Z]$ directly. But even this isn't as easy as I thought when I wrote this answer...

I don't think the binomial observation will help you get exact values, but it can help with asymptotics, because for large $n$, you have the Chernoff bound to estimate how often the variable with the larger rate "loses the race" and becomes the minimum.

Misha Lavrov
  • 142,276
  • Thank you! I also Googled quite a bit before posting here. I assume then, that according to your experience even if I plug in the $p=\frac{1}{2}$ and then $X=Y$ (and $X+Y \sim Pois(\lambda)$) there's no way to find a closed form expression for the mean? – eyals Mar 22 '17 at 22:38
  • 1
    Why does "this tell us that [Z∣X+Y=n] is maximized when p=1/2"? – Did Mar 22 '17 at 22:38
  • Good point; that's not at all obvious. (Well, it's obvious, but hard to prove.) I'll think about it a bit before I edit one way or the other. – Misha Lavrov Mar 22 '17 at 23:10
  • I run into the same problem. It's obvious (from symmetry) that $p=\frac{1}{2}$ is the maximum, but it is heavy to prove it using derivatives – eyals Mar 22 '17 at 23:46
  • http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1696256/expectation-and-concentration-for-minx-n-x-when-x-is-a-binomial See if this helps – BGM Mar 23 '17 at 01:07
  • @eyals If $p=1/2$, $X$ and $Y$ are still independent and the equality $X=Y$ is wrong. – NCh Mar 23 '17 at 01:18
  • @NCh Sorry i meant to say they are identical in this case – eyals Mar 23 '17 at 01:29
  • @eyals No, you meant to say they are identical in distribution. – Did Mar 23 '17 at 11:00
  • @MishaLavrov I have continued your proof to show $p=1/2$ indeed maximizes $Z$. Do you mind checking to see if my continuation is valid? Thanks – antkam Mar 09 '19 at 16:21