I've just started studying integrals, and I've been thinking about the following problem:
Let $f,g \in {\mathscr R[a,b]} \ s.t. f>g, \forall x \in [a,b].$
Can it be that $\int^{b}_{a}f =\int^{b}_{a}g$ or $\int^{b}_{a}f >\int^{b}_{a}g \ ?$
I'm having hard time getting intuition, but I think it's possible.
Any help appreciated.