The following model is proposed for the distribution of family size in a large population:
P(k children in family;$\theta$) = $\theta^{k}$, for $k = 1, 2, ...$
P(0 children in family;$\theta$) = $\frac{1-2\theta}{1-\theta}$.
I tried to multiply them together and got the likelihood function
$L(\theta)=\frac{1-2\theta}{1-\theta}\prod_{k=1}^\infty \theta^{k}$
I don't think it is the right way to approach. Any help is appreciated.