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Trying to get a transformational proof for "$(-p\vee q) \wedge (-q\vee p)$" to "$(p\vee q) \to (p\wedge q)$", any idea on the next step I can take?

I'm not looking for an answer just a hint.

Thanks

lioness99a
  • 4,943

1 Answers1

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Hint: Start with the Distribution rule for and over or.

PMar
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