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There are 100 ropes in a bag. In each step, two rope ends are picked at random, tied together and put back into a bag. The process is repeated until there are no free ends.
What is the expected number of loops at the end of the process?

Asinomás
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n0vakovic
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  • @Asinomas trying to find the origin of this problem despite it being in textbooks. Per Gil Kalai's blog Rados calls the problem "classical" but I do not know who started it. Any journal entry ? – New Student Sep 13 '22 at 20:44
  • I see it earliest in The College Math. J. (15, 1984, p. 347), Which mathematician dreamt this up ? – New Student Sep 13 '22 at 20:55

2 Answers2

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Suppose you start with $n$ ropes. You pick two free ends and tie them together:

  • If you happened to pick two ends of the same rope, you've added one additional loop (which you can set aside, since you'll never pick it now on), and have $n-1$ ropes

  • If you happened to pick ends of different ropes, you've added no loop, and effectively replaced the two ropes with a longer rope, so you have $n-1$ ropes in this case too.

Of the $\binom{2n}{2}$ ways of choosing two ends, $n$ of them result in the first case, so the first case has probability $\frac{n}{2n(2n-1)/2} = 1/(2n-1)$. So the expected number of loops you add in the first step, when you start with $n$ ropes, is $$\left(\frac{1}{2n-1}\right)1 + \left(1-\frac{1}{2n-1}\right)0 = \frac{1}{2n-1}.$$

After this, you start over with $n-1$ ropes. Since what happens in the first step and later are independent (and expectation is linear anyway), the expected number of loops is $$ \frac{1}{2n-1} + \frac{1}{2n-3} + \dots + \frac{1}{3} + 1 = H_{2n} - \frac{H_n}{2}$$

In particular, for $n=100$, the answer is roughly $3.28$, which come to think of it seems surprisingly small for the number of loops!

ShreevatsaR
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This question is very old (over 10 years), but there is a simpler solution to explain, with the same general idea as the accepted answer.

Suppose, at a given moment, there are $n$ loose ends. Once you choose the first loose end, you have $n-1$ other loose ends to tie the rope to, each with probability $\frac{1}{n-1}$. Note that only one of the loose ends is on the same rope as the first loose end.

When $n = 200$ (remember $n$ is the number of loose ends and there are 2 loose ends per rope), the answer is simply $\frac{1}{200-1}+\frac{1}{200-3}+\dots+\frac{1}{200-199}$. We add, since $n$ is arbitrary for any given moment and specifies a different time of you looping the rope.

Sirswagger21
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