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Premises    (p → t) ∨ q
             r → s
            (p ∨ q) → r
 Conclusion s

Very new to deductive proofs, I have the 3 above premises and a conclusion. I am confused as to why the answer is not just one line stating that (p ∨ q) → ris equal to s using `r → s, believe the rule is called the law of equivalence

1 Answers1

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HINT

Notice in your premises, the only way to conclude $s$ is to prove that $r$ is true, and that is only possible if $p \vee q$ is true. Is it possible to derive this from your first statement?

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