One of the first results showed when studying regular sequences is that we are allowed to shuffle the elements of the sequence if the ring is noetherian, local, and the module is finite (see Proposition 2 in here for a proof).
I know the ring being local and the module being finite are required to use Nakayama's lemma, but I can't spot where is noetherianity used!
Edit: By MooS' comment I realize Akhil and probably all the other sources are using Krull's Intersection theorem, which I thought I didn't need for 'my' proof (I learned it from Bruns-Herzog). So now I wonder what is wrong with the following:
We want to show that under all the hypothesis, if $x,y$ is an $M$-sequence, then $y,x$ is an $M$-sequence. Let's show that $y$ is not a zero-divisor.
Denote the kernel of multiplication by $y$ on $M$ by $K$. Assume $m\in K$. Then, by the regularity of the sequence $m\in xK$ (use $\overline{ym}=0\in xM$) and we can write $m=xm'$ for some $m'\in K$, i.e., $K\subseteq xK$. Conversely, if $xym'=0$ by regularity $ym'=0$ and $m'\in K$. Therefore $K=xK$, and by Nakayama's lemma (version from AM) $K=0$. Thus, $y$ is not a zero-divisor. QED
What is wrong with this proof?