Does the Jacobian Hypothesis ask if the Jacobian is a valid map?

Question

It appears that the JH is equivalent to asking whether the jacobian determinant itself is a valid map, I would appreciate any related research on this and confirmation of this equivalence.

score 0 · Accepted Answer · answered Apr 12 '17 at 22:56

0

You're incorrect. The determinant is always well-defined whenever the partials exist. It is about the inverse of the function that you are looking at the Jacobian determinant of.

answered Apr 12 '17 at 22:56

Stella Biderman

31,155

Does the Jacobian Hypothesis ask if the Jacobian is a valid map?

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