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Is it true, that $$\lim_{z \to 0} \frac{1}{z} = \infty$$ for $z \in \mathbb{C}$?

I have some trouble with a definition of this. I know that in $\mathbb{C}$ we have only one point at infinity unlike in $\mathbb{R}$ where we have $\pm \infty$. Could somebody provide me with a definition of the above limit?

VHarisop
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TheGeekGreek
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2 Answers2

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The limit $\lim_{z\to 0}\frac1z =\infty$ means that for all $B>0$, there exists a $\delta>0$ such that $$\left|\frac{1}{z}\right|>B$$whenever $0<|z|<\delta$.

With $\delta=1/B$, we are done.

Mark Viola
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If $z = x+iy$, $\frac1{z} =\frac1{x+iy} =\frac{x-iy}{x^2+y^2} =\frac{x}{x^2+y^2}-i\frac{y}{x^2+y^2} $.

If $y = \sqrt{x}$, then, as $x \to 0$, $\frac1{z} =\frac{x}{x^2+x}-i\frac{\sqrt{x}}{x^2+x} \approx 1-i\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} $, so the real part is bounded while the imaginary part blows up.

Similarly, if $x = \sqrt{y}$, the imaginary part is bounded while the real part blows up.

In all cases, the magnitude of $\frac1{z}$ blows up as $|z| \to 0$.

marty cohen
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