Theorem. There exists a nonempty set of rational numbers which is bounded above in $\mathbb{Q}$ but has no least upper bound in $\mathbb{Q}$.
Here is the relevant part of the proof that I am going to ask about.
Let $k=\frac{a}{b}\in\mathbb{Q}$ be an upper bound for the set $S=\{q\in\mathbb{Q}:q^2<2\}$. Suppose that $k^2<2$. Define $\delta=2-k^2>0$. Fix $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $$ N\geq\max\{2a+1,3a/(b^2\delta)\} $$ Since $N\geq 2a+1$, we have $N^2\geq N(2a+1)\geq 2Na+1$ and since $N>3a/(b^2\delta)$, then $N^2b^2\delta>3Na\geq 2Na+1$ which forces $$ \frac{2Na+1}{N^2b^2}<\delta $$ Define $l=\frac{Na+1}{Nb}$. Then $$ l^2=k^2+\frac{2Na+1}{N^2b^2}<k^2+\delta=2 $$
What is my question?
No matter how hard I think about this part of the proof I see nowhere that $N\geq 2a+1$ is used to show that $l^2<2$. I am sure that I am missing something quite obvious but I can not figure it out. Perhaps the thinking of the author of the proof was different to mine. Why was it necessary to fix $N\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $$ N\geq\max\{2a+1,3a/(b^2\delta)\} $$ and not just $N> 3a/(b^2\delta)$? In other words, I see $N\geq 2a+1$ unnecessary.
$k=\frac{a}{b}\in\mathbb{Q}$ is an upper bound in $\mathbb{Q}$ for $S$. We know that $\sqrt{2}\approx1.41421356237$ is the supremum of $S$ in real numbers so $k\geq 1.5$ or $k\geq 1.42$ or $k\geq 1.415$ and so on which forces $a>1$.
$l^2=k^2+\frac{2Na+1}{N^2b^2}$ and I can approximate $\frac{2Na+1}{N^2b^2}$ as follows
$$ \begin{align*} \frac{2Na+1}{N^2b^2}&\leq\frac{2Na+N}{N^2b^2}&&\text{since }N\geq 1\\ &=\frac{2a+1}{Nb^2}&&\\ &<\frac{2a+a}{Nb^2}&&\text{since }a>1\\ &=\frac{3a}{Nb^2}&& \end{align*} $$ So I need $\frac{3a}{Nb^2}<\delta$ which implies $N>\frac{3a}{b^2\delta}$.