I am reading a journal article and I come across this statement:
Loneliness was associated with higher odds of having a mental health problem (OR: 1.17; CI: [1.13, 1.21], p = 0.000); and isolation was associated with higher odds of reporting one’s health as being fair/poor (OR:1.39; CI: [1.21, 1.59], p = 0.000).
I'm slightly confused. What does it mean when the p-value is 0? Does that mean 100% confidence?
Reference: Coyle, C. E., & Dugan, E. (2012). Social isolation, loneliness and health among older adults. Journal of Aging and Health, 24(8), 1346-1363.