I've finally resigned myself to believing that functions such as $f(x)=x^2+1$ have no iteration formulas in the closed form. I'm pretty sure that this is true, but I have no way of knowing for sure as of yet. Can anyone give me a way to determine and prove if a polynomial function can be iterated in the closed form?
I already know that functions of the form $f(x)=\frac{1}{a}(ax+c)^2-\frac{c}{a}$ can be iterated because they take the form $f(x)=(g\circ h\circ g^{-1})(x)$. Some other quadratics such as $f(x)=2x^2-1$ can be iterated using trigonometric functions. Maybe that helps.
Edit: Many quadratic functions "flip out" when you graph their iterates, and you get a strange and messy graph. These are usually the ones you can't iterate. The ones that can be iterated of the first form I mentioned have no inflection point, and those of the second type do, but each maximum and minimum has the same y-value. Just by messing around and graphing the iterates of a few parabolas with the line $y=x$ as a tangent at a single point, I noticed that their iterates also never have inflection points and don't behave erratically under iteration. It seems like they should be iteratable, but I can't figure out how.