So, in his analysis book in appendix for logic he gives a proof that
if $n$ is a an integer, then $n(n+1)$ is an even integer.($Theorem A.2.4.$)
Since $n$ is an integer, $n$ is even or odd. If $n$ is even, then... . If $n$ is odd, then... . Thus in either case $n(n+1)$ is even, and we are done.
Note that this proof relies on two implications: "If $n$ is even, then $n(n+1)$ is even" and "If $n$ is odd, then $n(n+1)$ is even". Since $n$ cannot be both odd and even, at least one of these implications has a false hypothesis and is therefore vacuous.
After that he shows a corollary of this theorem with some big $N$.
Let $n = (253+142)*123 - (423+198)^{342} + 538 - 213$. Then $n(n+1)$ is an even integer.
In this particular case, one can work out exactly which parity $n$ is - even or odd - and then use only one of the two implications in the above Theorem, discarding the vacuous one.
What does he mean by "discarding the vacuous one"?(And why would i want to do this?)
After that he says:
This may seem like it is more efficient, but it is a false economy, because one then has to determine what parity $n$ is,...
but why, because of that "discard", do i have to determine parity then?