If $f(z)$ is entire, and $f(z)$ is real iff $z$ is real, prove $f'(z) \ne 0$ for all real $z$.
Edit: Sorry, somehow my preliminary efforts didn't make it in here:
I know that $f$ cannot be constant, that's a contradiction, and that if $f$ is entire, then it is analytic and holomorphic everywhere.
I have seen (but not quite understood) proofs that $f$ can have at most one zero. I have not done "winding numbers" and it seems most proofs of this employ the use of these.
Because $f$ is entire, it is continuous and so all $z$ in the upper half plane have the same sign of their imaginary part.
My first thought was by contradiction. Assume $f'(z)=0$ for some $z_0 \in C$. Then $a_1 = 0$ in the taylor series of $f$, so then $f(z)= f(z_0) + a_2*(z-z_0)^2 + O((z-z_0)^2)$. Then I'm not sure where to go from here.
I was also thinking of setting $f = u(x,y) + iv(x,y)$, and noting that $v(x,0)=0$, but I can't see how this would get me anywhere with derivatives.