As the title suggested ,I am kinda stuck at this limit.I tried the following :
-We know that
$$-1\le \sin\left(\frac{1}{xy}\right)\le1$$
when $xy!=0$.
-From here I tried to use a squeeze rule so I multiplied by $x^2+y^2$ thus having $$(x^2+y^2)\le(x^2+y^2) \sin\left(\frac{1}{xy}\right)\le(x^2+y^2)$$
But limit of $\lim\limits_{(x,y)\to 0}x^2+y^2=0$ ; the same goes for its counterpart. So if the two limits are $0$ then our desired limit is also $0$.
Is this wrong? If so could you please give me an alternate solution?