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As the title suggested ,I am kinda stuck at this limit.I tried the following :

-We know that
$$-1\le \sin\left(\frac{1}{xy}\right)\le1$$

when $xy!=0$.

-From here I tried to use a squeeze rule so I multiplied by $x^2+y^2$ thus having $$(x^2+y^2)\le(x^2+y^2) \sin\left(\frac{1}{xy}\right)\le(x^2+y^2)$$

But limit of $\lim\limits_{(x,y)\to 0}x^2+y^2=0$ ; the same goes for its counterpart. So if the two limits are $0$ then our desired limit is also $0$.

Is this wrong? If so could you please give me an alternate solution?

Arbuja
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1 Answers1

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Your proof and answer is correct. But, even though this is probably just a typo, on the step where you multiplied all parts of the inequality by $x^2+y^2$, you forgot to put a negative sign in front of the first part. You put $(x^2+y^2)$, but for the first part, it should be $-x^2-y^2$, or $-(x^2+y^2)$.

ArthD21
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