I have a question regarding Theorem 20.4 in Munkres' topology. The theorem states that the uniform topology on $\mathbb{R}^J$ is finer than the product topology and coarser than the box topology.
The uniform topology is defined as $\bar{\rho}(x,y) = \mathrm{sup}\{\bar{d}(x_{\alpha}, y_{\alpha})|\alpha \in J\}$ where $\bar{d}$ is the standard bounded metric.
My confusion arises in showing that the box topology is finer than the uniform topology. The proof states that we should let $B$ be the $\epsilon$-ball centered at $x$ in the $\bar{\rho}$-metric. Then the box neighborhood $$U = \prod (x_\alpha - \frac{1}{2}\epsilon, x_{\alpha} + \frac{1}{2}\epsilon)$$ of $x$ is contained in $B$, for if $y \in U$, then $\bar{d}(x_\alpha, y_\alpha) < \frac{1}{2}\epsilon, \space \forall \alpha$, so that $\bar{\rho}(x,y) \leq \epsilon/2$.
It is the last inequality that I don't understand. Or rather, the fact that it is not a strict inequality. If $\bar{d}(x_\alpha, y_\alpha)$ is strictly smaller than $\epsilon/2$ for all $\alpha$, then how could $\bar{\rho}(x,y)$ ever be equal to $\epsilon/2$?