I got an answer of $\frac{4}{3}$, but the textbook answer says $2$. How would one solve it, and what did I do wrong?
Let $\vec r=(1+t^2)\hat i+\arctan(t)\hat j$ where $0≤t≤1$
$dx=2tdt, dy=\frac{1}{1+t^2}dt, \sec^2y=1-\tan^2y$ $\int_c\tan ydx+x\sec ^2ydy=\int_0^1\tan(\arctan(t))\cdot 2tdt+(1+t^2)(1-\tan ^2(\arctan(t))\cdot \frac{1}{1+t^2}dt$
$=\int_0^1(2t^2+(1-t^2))dt$
$=\int_0^1(t^2+1)dt=\frac{4}{3}$
(Stewart Multivariable Calculus 4e, 13.3, Q19)