This question is off an exam I took. Naturally I set out to first to create a Maclaurin power series.
$f(x) = \frac{1}{\cos(x)}$ $\qquad \quad \quad \quad \quad f(0)= 1$
$f'(x)= \frac{\sin(x)}{\cos^2(x)}$ $\quad \quad \quad \quad \quad f'(0)= 0$
$f''(x) = 2\frac{\sin^2(x)}{\cos^3(x)} +\frac{1}{\cos(x)}$ $\quad f''(0)= 1$
Power series is then:
$$1 + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!}+...=\sum \frac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!}$$
I performed the ratio test on this power series and found that it converges everywhere. However, my professor wrote that:
The function $1/\cos x$ does not have a value at $x = \pi/2$; therefore the inside of the circle or interval of convergence cannot include $x = \pi/2.$ ” This point is a “singularity”, and no other singularity lies closer to the origin.
This should be taken very seriously.*
What is this singularity he is referring to and why does it make my ratio test answer incorrect?