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I know that in school, we were always taught that $0*0 = 0$, because anything times zero is zero, but wouldn't it be true that you are saying you have zero quantity of zero, meaning you cannot end up with zero (because you just said you do not have zero).

Therefore, wouldn't $0*0$ be equal to any number except zero?

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    Hint: $\emptyset \neq { \emptyset }$ – Paul May 12 '17 at 17:38
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    What is the area of a square of zero side? – Crostul May 12 '17 at 17:39
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    All water bottles are empty (zero liters of water per bottle). You have no bottle (zero bottles). How much water (water per bottle times number of bottles) do you have? – celtschk May 12 '17 at 17:40
  • What about if I have zero quantity of zero itself? – ben-Nabiy Derush May 12 '17 at 17:42
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    As someone said once, "It is these kind of thoughts which kept me out of the really good schools..." – ben-Nabiy Derush May 12 '17 at 18:02
  • In boolean algebra, true is represented by 1, false by zero. We know that $0 \cdot 1 = 1\cdot 0 = 0\cdot 0 = 0$, where multiplication represents "and". The only time $a\cdot b = 1$ is when both $a, b =1$. That's one way to take an alternative view of the situation. There are many other ways. Remember nothing of nothing is simply nothing – amWhy May 12 '17 at 18:09
  • @ben-NabiyDerush If you like you could consider it axiomatic that $0\cdot 0 = 0$ (it's not usually an axiom, but it doesn't hurt if you individually consider it to be one). This way you get out of the English to mathematics translation bind you find yourself in. As pointed out by others, $0\cdot 0 = 0$ works well in the real world, so the only difficultly I see you having is linguistic - and that's where the axiomatic definition comes in. – Χpẘ May 12 '17 at 18:45
  • You are at the moving at the rate of 0 km per hour, and you have been traveling for 0 hours, how far have you gone? – GEdgar May 13 '17 at 12:20
  • I am not saying there is absolutely no way that $0*0=0$, but that there is a flaw in the logic, if what you are saying you have no nothing... If your quantity of nothing is none, how do you end up with nothing? – ben-Nabiy Derush May 14 '17 at 14:09
  • @Crostul: There is no such "square" which has zero sides... I think you meant to say "What is the area of a square with sides of length zero." – ben-Nabiy Derush May 14 '17 at 14:15

10 Answers10

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TL;DR

If we assume that $0 \times 0$ equals anything but $0$, then $$ 0 = 0 \times (0 \times 0) = (0 \times 0) + (0 \times 0) = 2 \times (0 \times 0) \ne 0 \implies 0 \ne 0 $$


The mathematical explanation

You first get in touch with this fact in dealing with natural numbers. Here, the distribution law holds:

Given three natural numbers $a$, $b$ and $c$ the multiplication is distributive over the sum, i.e. $$ a \times (b \times c) = a \times b + a \times c $$

Furthermore, it is well known and (somehow) easily provable that in $\mathbb{Z}$, $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\mathbb{R}$ the element $0$ is the only one satisfying $a \times 0 = 0$ for each element $a$ - they're integral domains, where $0$ is the only so-called $0$-divisor. Over $\mathbb{N}$, you define the multiplication as $a \times 0 = 0$ and $a \times S(b) = a \times b + a$, given two naturals $a$ and $b$. Then, being $1 = S(0)$, you get $$ 0 = 0 \times 1 = 0 \times 0 + 0 = 0 \times 0, $$ since $0$ is the identity element of the monoid $(\mathbb{N},+)$. More about the natural numbers at Wikipedia.


A linguistical explanation

In my humble opinion, the trouble you got into is a linguistical one: you took multiplication $x \times y$ as "$x$ quantity of $y$", which is a non-formal view of that operation. That can be extremely dangerous.

For example:

Let $x$ be "the smallest number which cannot be expressed with more than twenty alphanumeric symbols".

There, you're already expressing $x$ with way more than twenty alphanumeric symbols. ;-)

Back to your question: if I told you that $0$ meant "nothing", you would have ended up having no amount of nothing, which is...nothing!

As you can see, it can be convenient to have an intuitive or non-formal visualisation of mathematical concepts, but this can lead to wrong conclusions.

  • +1 for the last paragraph - especially with concepts like calculus, intuition is good, but the rigorous definition is what makes it ultimately sensual in the end. – rb612 May 13 '17 at 08:25
  • +1 for the answer, but if you say you have no nothing, then you contradict to end up with nothing... – ben-Nabiy Derush May 14 '17 at 14:07
  • Here, I gave you an insight on the formal definition of $0$ and natural numbers. Of course, you can delve into philosophy-related question, you can refute the axioms used by Peano in the construction of natural numbers...you can do a lot of things. The results provided by me and the other users just follow the ordinary rules and the wide-adopted vision of mathematics. Other currents, such as fictionalism, take a different approach. As a famous fast-food company says, "Have it your way"! :-) –  May 14 '17 at 14:18
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I'm trying to empathize with your lexical hurdle. The best way I can think of to convince you is that having zero groups, containing zero elements each, doesn't imply you have any other amount of groups containing any other amount of elements, turning you into having something! You have even more so zero elements!!

lesath82
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Suppose $a*b$ indicates the amount of milk you have in your house, where $a$ is the number of trips you take to the store and $b$ is the amount of milk you buy per trip. Then if both $a$ and $b$ are $0$, you have no milk.

  • unfortunately that does not work, as I may go to the store before I run out, therefore indicating that the amount of trips and how much I buy gives a picture, but not the quantity (meaning I could have more, but no less than...) – ben-Nabiy Derush May 15 '17 at 13:31
  • @ben-NabiyDerush: I am assuming I have not consumed any milk. – Cheerful Parsnip May 15 '17 at 13:57
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We have that $$\lim_{x\to 0}0\cdot x=0$$ So it's useful to define $0\cdot 0=0$ for continuity. Also imagine dividing $0$ candies to $0$ people it's kinda absurd that you will actually get some candies from none.

kingW3
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The number $0$ has a special role when we do arithmetic. Let's consider the reals together with addition $+$ and multiplication $\cdot$. Then there are some (more or less) plausible rules or algebraic laws from which \begin{align*} 0\cdot0=0 \tag{1} \end{align*} necessarily follows.

  • Identity element

The number zero has a really distinguishable property: We can add zero to any number without changing anything. \begin{align*} 0+a=a=a+0\qquad\qquad\text{for all } a\text{ in } \mathbb{R}\tag{2} \end{align*}

An element with this property is called identity element of addition.

  • Additive inverse element

    To each element $a$ in $\mathbb{R}$ we can find an element $-a$ in $\mathbb{R}$ with the property \begin{align*} a+(-a)=0=(-a)+a\tag{3} \end{align*}

An element with this property is called additive inverse of addition.

  • Distributive law

    Together with the distributive law \begin{align*} a\cdot(b+c)=a\cdot b+ a\cdot c\qquad\qquad \text{for all } a,b,c \text{ in } \mathbb{R}\tag{4} \end{align*}

we conclude \begin{align*} 0\cdot 0&=0\cdot(0+0)&\text{rule }(2)\\ 0\cdot 0&=0\cdot 0+0\cdot 0&\text{rule }(4)\\ \end{align*} The element $0\cdot 0$ has according to rule (3) an additive inverse element $-(0\cdot 0)$ and adding this element to the last equation gives \begin{align*} 0=0\cdot 0 \end{align*}

Note: We might conclude the logic behind this identity is encoded in those algebraic laws.

Markus Scheuer
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Perhaps we can agree that $0 \cdot 1 =0$ and $0+1=1$? If so, then for arithmetic to work as we want it to, we must have: $$0=0\cdot 1=0\cdot (0+1)=$$ $$0\cdot 0 + 0\cdot 1 = 0 \cdot 0 + 0 = 0 \cdot 0$$

All of these operations are substitutions or basic algebra we want to use for all numbers, 0 included.

Artimis Fowl
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I noticed that you used the "Logic" tag on your question.

If you are doing math using standard boolean logic, the one thing that means 'game over' is a contradiction - the statement $P$ is both true and false.

So, go for it! Assume you are onto something and insist that

$0 \times 0 \ne 0$

I doubt you will have much fun. You will have to twist yourself into contortions to avoid a contradiction, and I doubt anything useful will come of it. Perhaps you need to develop a whole new system of logic, and then things will work out.

You might want to read

Who Invented Zero?


Now I will attempt to explain why $0 \times 0 = 0$.

Are you on-board that we have the natural numbers with an operation called addition and zero is the additive identity? If you have a formal system, then $0$ represents a 'blank page" or the starting no-length tick on a ruler when you are adding things to each other.

OK, if you do, then multiplication starts out as just an abbreviation:

$m \times n$ is shorthand for adding $m$ $n's$ together:

$n + n + ... + n$ where $n$ occurs $m$ times.

Now, $0 \times n$ gets you back to that 'blank page' or zero.

So if you accepts that, why balk over accepting that $0 \times 0$ is a 'blank page', contributing nothing when we are adding up marbles or stick figures or other things.

Take a 'blank page' 'blank page' times and what do you get? If our formal system insists that we get back to a number, well it better be zero.

CopyPasteIt
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  • How can a bumblebee fly? It is mathematically impossible... yet they seem to do it. Throughout history, things taken as fact, law, or absolute truth have been proven to not be that way, so why not one more thing. All it takes is someone to stir the pot... If I have no sets of nothing, I do not end up with nothing as a result. I just declared I have no nothings, so at least I must have something. – ben-Nabiy Derush May 14 '17 at 13:21
  • I guess you are not interested in the history of zero. The revolution was introducing zero into number systems. So you must be a counter-revolutionary! – CopyPasteIt May 14 '17 at 13:46
  • I greatly appreciate zero... it has served humanity wonderfully! It is when it is used in certain situations, like saying you have zero sets of nothing, which does not arrive you at 1 set of nothing then... – ben-Nabiy Derush May 14 '17 at 14:14
  • @ben - you have to at least be satisfied with the fact that X raised to the zero power is not zero! – CopyPasteIt May 15 '17 at 15:07
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Let me focus on the bolded part here:

I know that in school, we were always taught that $0*0 = 0$, because anything times zero is zero, but wouldn't it be true that you are saying you have zero quantity of zero, meaning you cannot end up with zero (because you just said you do not have zero).

Original interpretation

If I have $0 * 0$, does that mean that I don't have $0$ (and so I must have some other number besides $0$)? That may seem like a natural way to continue the pattern:

  • Suppose I have $0 * (1\text{ cat})$. This means I don't have a cat—it is not the case that I have a cat.
  • Suppose I have $0 * (1\text{ liter of water})$. This means I don't have any water—it is not the case that I have water.
  • Suppose I have $0 * 0$. Does this mean that I don't have nothing—it is not the case that I have nothing (and therefore I must have something)?

As a matter of fact, $0 * 0$ is $0$, so the pattern must not hold here. But why doesn't it hold?

The problem is that the English word "nothing" is a special word which, unlike most nouns and pronouns, doesn't refer to something. Instead, causes the verb to mean the negation of what it usually means. (If I say that "I hear nothing", I'm not saying that I hear; I'm saying that I don't hear.)

So we write down the sentence "I don't have nothing", and then when we read that sentence, the word "nothing" changes the meaning from "I don't have" to "I do have". But we don't want that! We want to keep the original meaning, which is "I don't have".

We need an interpretation that doesn't change meaning when we put the number $0$ into it.

A more robust interpretation

As you know, $0 = 1 - 1$ ($0$ is the same number as $1 - 1$). If I have one item, and then you take away one item, I am left with zero items.

So this means we can interpret "I have $0 * x$" as meaning "I had $x$, but then you took away $x$".

This interpretation shows why $0 * 0 = 0$:

  • Suppose I have $0 * (1\text{ cat})$. This means that I had a cat, and then you took a cat from me. Now I no longer have any cats; I have nothing.
  • Suppose I have $0 * (1\text{ liter of water})$. This means I had a liter of water, and then you took a liter of water from me. Now I no longer have any water; I have nothing.
  • Suppose I have $0 * 0$. This means I had nothing, and then you took nothing from me. Now I still have nothing!
Tanner Swett
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  • Answers like this are what I was hoping to provoke by the question. Thank you! May this be a good example to all those who just tried to give a short example, without really understanding what I was saying. Bravo. – ben-Nabiy Derush May 15 '17 at 13:27
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Any real number $r$ such that $r^2 = r$ also satisfies $r(r-1) =0$. So the RHS being zero implies the LHS for your question.

Xetrov
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Hayden
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Well, imagine you have zero candy. You have zero lots of zero candy. Therefore, you have nothing.

Imagine you have a zero length stick. You stuck a zero length stick perpendicular to the first one. There is no area in between!

Basically, I am trying to say that to do $0*0$, just use real life problems for $xy $, where $x=y=0$

P.S. What were you thinking of, if you didn't think that it was zero?

Xetrov
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  • I am not putting labels on it for a reason, because I am saying $0$ (as a quantity) of $0$ as an object, cannot arrive me at suddenly having a quantity of $1$ $0$ – ben-Nabiy Derush May 12 '17 at 17:45
  • Sorry if I didn't once it properly, but arrive me? What does that mean? – Xetrov May 12 '17 at 17:46
  • @ben-NabiyDerush Paul's comment on your question covers this case. Essentially, you equate zero to the null set (the set containing nothing), not the set containing the null set. If you are treating zero as an object, multiplying any object by zero will give you zero. – Tyberius May 12 '17 at 17:53
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    @ben-NabiyDerush : I understand your reasoning perfectly. In the answer above, the argument: "Well, imagine you have zero candy. You have zero lots of zero candy.", is really wherein the problem lies isn't it? Let $C$ denote 'candy', It both says to assume you have $0C$ and then that you have $0(0*C)$, but they are just the same, so it shouldn't matter should it? – Christopher.L May 12 '17 at 17:55
  • @Christopher.L You are getting close. Your zero lots of zero candy must mean I have lots of candy, so in that case I at least have 1 lot of candy, because I just said I have zero empty lots of candy. (not sure how to word it...) – ben-Nabiy Derush May 12 '17 at 18:00
  • @Christopher.L what do you mean? Is that a compliment of critism – Xetrov May 12 '17 at 18:05
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    @ben-NabiyDerush I am really just trying to phrase it so that it makes somewhat intuitive sense, respecting how you phrased the question. Otherwise I suppose it pretty much just comes down to ring theory: $0+0=0\Rightarrow 0x=(0 + 0)x=0x+0x$, since $\mathbb{R}$ (or whatever set you are measuring your quantities in) is an abelian group under addition, cancel and get $0=0x$. But to reason about it again in another, hopefully correct way from your perspective: Imagine you have a box with no candy, put that box in another box with no candy, do you suddenly have candy or not? – Christopher.L May 12 '17 at 18:11
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    @ben-NabiyDerush, Regarding "compliment of [criticism]" ; not sure what you mean. What, of that I wrote are you referring to? I did happen to post a comment by mistake before it was done, that I then edited so you might have read that, otherwise I am not sure what you mean (is what a "compliment of criticism"?). – Christopher.L May 12 '17 at 18:14
  • @Christopher.L I was not the one who made the comment about a compliment of criticism (which I think meant compliment OR criticism)... You will have to ask simple_mathematics what was meant by the comment... – ben-Nabiy Derush May 14 '17 at 13:15
  • @ben-NabiyDerush : Typeo on my part, apologies. I think I got it anyway. – Christopher.L May 14 '17 at 13:23