Let $\mathfrak{g}$ be a reductive Lie algebra, i.e. every solvable ideal $\mathfrak{a}$ is contained in the center $\mathfrak{z}(\mathfrak{g})$. Then $[\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]$ is semisimple, i.e. there is no nonzero solvable ideal.
My proof would go as follows:
Let $\mathfrak{a}$ be a solvable ideal in $\mathfrak{g}$. The kernel of $ad(\mathfrak{g})$ is exactly $\mathfrak{z}(\mathfrak{g})$ which induces an isomorphism $ad(\mathfrak{g}) \cong \mathfrak{g}/\mathfrak{z}(\mathfrak{g}) $. Since $\mathfrak{a}$ is solvable it lies in $\mathfrak{z}(\mathfrak{g})$ and is therefore $0$ in $\mathfrak{g}/\mathfrak{z}(\mathfrak{g})$ which means that it is $0$ in $ad(\mathfrak{g})$. Therefore $ad(\mathfrak{g})$ is semisimple and since $ad(\mathfrak{g}) \cong [\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]$, the claim follows.
Is this proof correct?