Let $S$ be a subset of a topological space. I want to prove or disprove the following claim:
$\left(\overline{\left( \overline{S} \right)^\circ}\right)^\circ=\left( \overline{S} \right)^\circ$
Setting $A=\left( \overline{S} \right)^\circ$, we have: $A=\left( \overline{A} \right)^\circ$.
I know counterexamples where $A$ is open and this does not hold (for example: $(-1,0)\cup(0,1) $ in R), but I cannot find $S$ such that $A=\left( \overline{S} \right)^\circ$.
Thus, I guess the statement is true, and I am trying to prove it.
I proved that $A\subseteq\left( \overline{A} \right)^\circ$, but I did not manage to proof the other implication yet.