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Consider Riemann zeta function on the domain $\{x|x>1\}$. Is there a way to compute its inverse function ($F(s)$ such that $F(\zeta(s)) = s$) numerically approximately, except for interpolation?

reuns
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xuhdev
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    Take a look here. Anyway I dont found something more specific. – Masacroso May 18 '17 at 05:03
  • Maybe you can provide us more details @user1952009 Many thanks. –  May 18 '17 at 14:20
  • I hope don't disturb, I am saying explicit and detailed calculations to understand the development of the solution. Many thanks @user1952009 –  May 18 '17 at 14:49
  • @user243301 detailed calculation about what ? do you understand what is a math question ? – reuns May 18 '17 at 14:50
  • @user1952009 that's what I meant – xuhdev May 18 '17 at 16:26
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    Then do you know this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lagrange_inversion_theorem and this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/235470/proving-theorem-connecting-the-inverse-of-a-holomorphic-function-to-a-contour-in – reuns May 18 '17 at 17:06
  • @user1952009 I think that's a good solution. Thanks! – xuhdev May 19 '17 at 05:11

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