One of the examples in my textbook uses the comparison
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{k} \ln{k}} \geq \frac{1}{k}$$
This comparison is not immediately obvious to me. I can understand that $\frac{1}{\sqrt{k}} \geq \frac{1}{k}$ holds but I would have assumed that by multiplying the denominator of the RHS by $\ln{k}$ the inequality would be reversed.