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$ \sum_{i}^{n+1} n !$

This sum is suppose to equal $(n+1)!$. For some reason I don't get why. Can anyone explain?

Taken directly from http://www.inchmeal.io/2016/01/15/how-to-prove-it-ch-7-sec-1.html q22(a) last part.

2 Answers2

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Hint: All the terms are the same; $n!$ does not depend on $i$.

Stahl
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Example: $\sum_{1}^{5}2 = 5 \times 2 = 10$; $\sum_{1}^{n}x = n \times x = nx$ for all integers $n \geq 1$ and all real $x$.

Clearly, we have $$ \sum_{1}^{n+1}n! = (n+1)\times n! = (n+1)!. $$

Yes
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