The following integral came into my way today.
$${\Large \int_{0}^{\infty} }\frac{\sum \limits_{k=1}^{\infty}k\sin(kx)\,e^{-tk^2}}{\sum \limits_{k=1}^{\infty}\cos(kx)\,e^{-tk^2}}dt=\frac{\pi^2({\pi-x})}{8} \quad , \quad 0<x<2\pi$$
I have no idea how to attack it. First thing coming into my mind is Poisson summation formula but I am not used to using it.. So, basically no clue.
Can we deduce a general form for those two sums in there? I have this strange feeling we can , no?
By the way, since I don't have an attack I am not sure the answer is correct.