In Evans' PDE book, the author claims (p.352) that the uniform ellipticity condition \begin{equation} \label{e:1} \sum_{i,j=1}^n a^{ij}(x)\xi_i \xi_j \ge \theta|\xi|^2 \end{equation}
implies that $$ \sum_{i,j,k,\ell=1}^n a^{ij} a^{k\ell}v_{x_i x_k}v_{x_j x_\ell} \ge \theta^2 |D^2 u|^2. $$ This is very believable to me, but I cannot write down a proof. Why is it true? It seems to me that the most obvious thing to try would be to rearrange the sum $$ \sum_{i,j,k,\ell=1}^n a^{ij} a^{k\ell}v_{x_i x_k}v_{x_j x_\ell} = \sum_{i,j=1}^n a^{ij} \sum_{k,\ell=1}^n a^{k\ell}v_{x_i x_k}v_{x_j x_\ell} $$ and try to apply uniform ellipticity to the inner sum first, followed by the outer sum. However, the inner sum here is not quite in the right form. (What would $\xi$ be? $v_{x_i x_k}$ and $v_{x_j x_\ell}$ are the $k$th and $\ell$th components of two different vectors, namely $Du_{x_i}$ and $Du_{x_j}$, respectively.) Am I missing something easy here?