As stated in a comment, $f$ can actually be any scalar multiple of what you claimed it is. First, note that $f(1)=f(1\cdot 1) = 2f(1)$, and so $f(1)=0$. Further,
$$f'(x)=\frac{\partial }{\partial x} (f(x)+f(y))=\frac{\partial}{\partial x}f(xy) = yf'(xy)$$
Letting $x=1$ gives us $f'(1)=yf'(y)$, i.e.
$$f'(y) = \frac{f'(1)}{y}$$
An application of the FTOC tells us that, for $y>0$
$$f(y) = \int_1^y\frac{f'(1)}{t}\,dt = \int_1^{\vert y\vert}\frac{f'(1)}{t}\,dt$$
Now note that $0=f(1)=f(-1)+f(-1)\implies f(-1)=0$. Then the FTOC tells us that, for $y<0$,
$$f(y) = \int_{-1}^y \frac{f'(1)}{t}\, dt=-\int_{-y}^{1}\frac{f'(1)}{t}\,dt = \int_{1}^{\vert y \vert}\frac{f'(1)}{t}\, dt $$
The second equality holds because the integrand is odd (or alternatively, using the substitution $t\mapsto -t$).