The notation seems a little off because while there is a nice map from $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ to $\mathbb{Z}/n^2\mathbb{Z}$, it corresponds to multiplying by $n$, which might not be what you want. I think that I know what you mean (so here's how I interpret your question).
Setup:
\begin{align}
x_1&=a+k_1n\\
x_2&=b+k_2n\\
x_3&=c+k_3n\\
x_4&=d+k_4n
\end{align}
where $0\leq a,b,c,d<n$ and the $k_i$'s are integers.
Is
$$
x_1(x_2-x_4+[x_3+x_4]-[x_2+x_3])\equiv 0\pmod{n^2}?
$$
Now, we replace
\begin{align}
[x_3+x_4]&=x_3+x_4+k_5n\\
[x_2+x_3]&=x_2+x_3+k_6n\\
\end{align}
since reducing modulo $n$ means subtracting some multiple of $n$ (here $k_i$ is also an integer). Therefore, we get that the original equation reduces to:
\begin{align}
x_1(x_2-x_4+[x_3+x_4]-[x_2+x_3])&=
x_1(x_2-x_4+x_3+x_4+k_5n-x_2-x_3-k_6n)\\
&=x_1(k_5n-k_6n)\\
&=a(k_5-k_6)n+k_1(k_5-k_6)n^2\equiv a(k_5-k_6)n\pmod{n^2}.
\end{align}
This suggests that you claim is not true. If we can choose $a$ not a multiple of $n$, say $a=1=x_1$, $x_2=n-1$, $x_3=1$, and $x_4=1$. Suppose that $n>2$. Then $[x_3+x_4]=[2]=2$, $[x_2+x_3]=n=0$. Then,
$$
x_1(x_2-x_4+[x_3+x_4]-[x_2+x_3])=1((n-1)-1+2-0)=n
$$
which is not a multiple of $n^2$.