0

My calculus is a bit rusty and I would need a refresher on this:

Consider 2 functions $F$ and $G$. Both functions are $R \rightarrow R$. Consider a third function $y(u,v) = F(u)+G(v)$.

How can you show that $\frac{\partial^2{y}}{\partial{u}\partial{v}}=0$.

I would need a hint on how to tackle this. Thanks!

1 Answers1

1

$y(u,v)=F(u)+G(v)\\ \frac{\partial y}{\partial u} = \frac {df}{du}\\ \frac{\partial y}{\partial v} = \frac {dg}{dv}$

$\frac{\partial y}{\partial u}$ is a function of $u$ and $\frac{\partial y}{\partial v}$ is a function of $v$

$\frac{\partial^2 y}{\partial u\partial v} = \frac{\partial }{\partial u}\frac{\partial y}{\partial v} =\frac{\partial }{\partial v}\frac{\partial y}{\partial u} = 0$

Doug M
  • 57,877