I am trying to show that $g(x,y)=y f(x,y)$ with
$$f: \mathbb R^2 \rightarrow \mathbb R $$ $$ f(x,y) = \begin{cases} \dfrac {2xy^2}{x^2+y^4} & (x,y)\ne (0,0) \\\\ 0 & (x,y)=(0,0) ~ \end{cases} $$
is not totally differentiable in $(0,0)$.
What I already have found out about the functions is that $f$ is not continuous in $(0,0)$, the function $g$ has all directional derivatives and they are equal to $0$.
The criterion I use for total differentials is that $f$ is totally differentiable in $x$, if there exists a linear map $L$ such that
$$\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{g(x+h)-g(x)-Lh}{|h|}=0$$
For $(x,y)=(0,0)$ we get
$$\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{g(h)-g(0)-Lh}{|h|}=\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{h_2f(h)-0f(0)-Lh}{|h|}=\lim_{h \to 0}h_2\frac{f(h)-f(0)}{|h|}-\frac{Lh}{|h|}=0 $$
Is it legitimate to deduce from that that $g$ is not totally differentiable in $(0,0)$ because $$lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(h)-f(0)}{|h|}$$ does not exist, as $f$ is not continous in $(0,0)$?