I'm new to this site. Apparently It looks like that given $3$ positive integers $a,b,c$ such that $a>b>c$ it's always true that $$a^2 - b^2 > b^2-c^2$$
I'm having a hard time proving this. Thanks in advance.
I'm new to this site. Apparently It looks like that given $3$ positive integers $a,b,c$ such that $a>b>c$ it's always true that $$a^2 - b^2 > b^2-c^2$$
I'm having a hard time proving this. Thanks in advance.
That is pretty obvious. The left side is negative because b < a and the right side is positive because b > c.
Unless you didn't mean that.
EDIT to answer the edited question:
THAT is not true. Take 1, 3, 4. 16-9=7 while 9-1=8.
Under the new interpretation it is false.
Let $a=5,b=4,c=1$. Then $a^2-b^2=9$ and $b^2-c^2=15$.
Using $a>c$
we get $$a^2>ac>c^2$$
and $$-a^2<-c^2$$
Finally adding $b^2$.....
Or you could note that $$b^2-a^2<0<b^2-c^2$$
The thing you are asking about is false.
Take integers $r > s > 0$ with additional inequality $$ r > s \left( 1 + \sqrt 2 \right). $$ Then take $$ a = r^2 + 2rs - s^2, \; \; b = r^2 + s^2, \; \; c = r^2 - 2 r s - s^2. $$ The result is $$ a > b > c > 0, $$ $$ a^2 - b^2 = b^2 - c^2. $$ It is also true that $$ a-1 > b > c > 0, $$ $$ (a-1)^2 - b^2 < b^2 - c^2. $$